Is substantive due process inconsistent with the original meaning/intent of the U.S. Constitution? I’ve always thought, based on a strict interpretation of the Constitution that New York v. Lochner, though a good decision for liberty, was decided incorrectly as the Bill of Rights ONLY applied to the federal government and not state governments.
Also, is the Incorporation Doctrine a result of the idea and implementation of Substantive Due Process or are they two separate things?
Last, is Substantive Due Process responsible for Supreme Court decisions such as Obergefell?
Thank you!
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