Dr. J, I am enjoying your lectures, but I wanted to ask why you use the term “Palestine” in your lectures [at least in the early lectures I have watched].
“Palestine” was essentially a term used by Hadrian to rob the Jewish people of their heritage in Israel when he renamed Judea to “Palestine.”
This renaming was an insult to the Jews after the Bar Kokhba revolt, and based on the Philistines, the enemy of the Jews.
The “palestine” name had vanished for a long time and did not resurface until the 20th century under the British mandate. “Palestine” is used currently by many who wish to obfuscate the historicity of the Jewish people in that area.
I think a far more historically accurate term would be Judah, Judea, or Israel.
This is probably just semantics in a sense, but in today’s context there are ramifications for the words we use to describe this Middle East area.
What do you think, Dr. J? I look forward to hearing your thoughts.