I was curious if there are any current controversies surrounding the acceptance of the law of comparative advantage and its universal applicability? I am a history student with an interest in economic development in England, and I am often shocked while reading very reputable authors on the subject that there is never any mention of this concept. There may, at times, be some vague reference to a particular location having some natural advantage to explain the locale of some industry, but never a mention of the law of association within a discussion of regionalization/division of labor or wealth creation. I’d be interested to hear why you think this might be. Thanks for your time!