Krugman Question

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  • #21141
    Jthomp76
    Member

    Why does Krugman always point to the 50s as an example that Keynesianism works? What’s the rebuttal?

    #21142
    gpm2313
    Member

    In addition to what Dr. Herbener said in response to your question over in the Austrian Economics forum I would add that a lot of the prosperity of the 1950s was the result of extensive deregulation undertaken in the aftermath of WW II. On this see Robert Higgs’ article “Wartime Prosperity? A Reassessment of the US Economy in the 1940s” (available online at independent.org) and the article titled “The Great Depression of 1946” by Vedder and Galloway (available on mises.org).

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