“Liberatian revisionism tells us that the Civil War was fought predominantly over States Rights and not slavery. However, if that’s true, why did Jefferson david demand, as a surrender and reconciliation condition, that their legistive status be restored so the could block the amendment before ratification?”
This dude is drilling this point home: “If slavery was not the grounds for southern secession, why was it the ONLY condition he wanted northern capitulation on in exchange for surrender?”
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I believe he’s talking about Hampton Roads. I’ve taken to reading an account of it here:
https://archive.org/stream/constitutionalview02steprich#page/612/mode/2up
So what it looks like to me is that Jefferson Davis’ delegates didn’t demand slavery continue as a condition of surrender, the north used it as a carrot on a stick to get the south to rejoin and hence the north never gave a crap about slavery in those territories.
Is this what is going on here?
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