Is there an economic case which is made that suggests that economic inequality produces inefficient outcomes? How does that typically go?
What is the main Austrian rebuttal of the Marxist contention that the wealthy are wealthy and the poor are poor because the employer “steals their excess labor” by paying subsistence wages, or not a “living wage” aside from the obvious factors of work ethic differentials, specialization, education, investments, etc? Did Mises or any of the greats ever talk about that idea?
What’s the Austrian take on the whole hullaballoo about workers not being paid a “living wage”? Don’t most unskilled laborers make over $12/hour anyway?