Let’s say a 28th Amendment was ratified by the necessary 38 States. Would the 12 States that chose not to ratify it, still be subject to it?
I ask, because I remember reading from one or more of the Liberty Classroom faculty that a State who chose NOT to ratify the original constitution would then not be subject to it; they would remain an independent, sovereign state on par with Portugal, France, Britain… I’m wondering if that logic, to a certain extent, applies after a State officially joins the Union, but rejects the ratification of a new amendment.
Thanks,
Sherwin