Can the same item be considered both a producer good and a consumer good — for the same person, at the same time?
I understand that one good a can be a producer good for A but a consumer good for B, if they use it differently. And one good can be a producer good for A and a consumer good for him later, if he starts using it differently. But what are the praxeological implications of A believing he is a consumer of his capital?
The use-case I’m referring to is a house. For a landlord the house is a capital good and for a tenant its a consumer good. But a common argument for why it’s wise to own a house (rather than rent) is that it’s an “investment” — it “earns you money” because
- The value goes up (or is anticipated to), and
- Every mortgage payment adds to the owner’s equity — a virtual deposit into savings
But the whole time the home is appreciating and equity is building, the owner is living in it — consuming it. Does this mean that home owners have found a silver bullet to skirt an annoying economic law? Or are they fooling themselves to think it’s a capital good if it’s not generating income in the form of rents?