I was listening to the Colonial Background lecture with with my girlfriend and McClanahan said the Muslims were expelled from Spain in 1492. She has just finished a class on the subject and adamantly says the Jews were expelled in 1492 from Spain, while the Muslims did not leave until 1502. I understand it may be a bit of a technicality, just wondering if I could get clarification on this.
I believe that 1492 is the date that the Reconquista was finished, and Spain officially reclaimed the entire Iberian peninsula from the Moors. However, it is possible that individual Muslims living in Spain were not expelled until later.
Yes, 1492 was the end of the Reconquista. It was not official policy of the Spanish crown that the Moors would be expelled until later, but the process of winning back control of the Iberian peninsula ended in 1492.
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