If the Incorporations doctrine is accepted (which Professors here do not accept, for good reason), then the 4th amendment could apply. Otherwise, it does not.
The commerce clause question is a little more difficult. At first, my instinct is to say that where no trade exists (due to a state ban) no regulation could exist. So, therefore, the clause would not give the Feds the right to coerce one state into buying/selling a good it chose to ban. But I am not so sure.
Hopefully the professors can weigh in!