June 19, 2012 at 9:12 am #16929
“If money does not have some value as a consumer or producer good, why would it hold any value at all?”
With this insightful question, you are on the verge of discovering Mises’ regression theorem.
“I understand your explanation regarding money and it not being either a consumer good or a producer good, but why cannot the accumulation or savings of a specific amount of money be an end? If I wanted to save $25,000, then why is money not considered a consumer good, since it is necessary to satisfy my end?”
Presumably you are saving money to use it at some point in the future. Of course, I have to admit the possibility of saving just to save. Generally though, I don’t think that needs to be given much attention to.