Wow, I have a lot of misconceptions to sort through. Thank you for your time and links. The 90% I was referring to was how much of a person’s demand account that he does not spend based on the banks’ remaining solvent after having lent out 90% of said holdings–meaning if more than 10% is withdrawn, then the bank would not have the money to give him (if operating under the reserve requirements, no more) I think I understand that a person receives money from the original lending of that money; and, therefore, that money does not represent the money stock but, more accurately, money substitutes. Is the end of the process people wishing to hold all the money that exists or to spend all the money that exists?
Is there evidence that people are holding more money? Are we now seeing this as an effect of inflation?