Thank you for your clarification.
I have a follow up question.
When someone argues that capitalism is inherently unjust because of the large income inequality gap, do they assume this fallacy? That the 1% of the population are receiving economic benefits at the expense of the impoverished?
I am trying to understand the economic assumptions people make when forming their moral judgments against free markets.
If everyone benefits in trade, and no one is exploited in free exchange, than those who find markets immoral because of income inequality have no basis for their argument.
Thank you so much for your time.